11 USMLE Cardiology Quick Review Questions with Answers (Set 1)

These 11 quick USMLE review questions test the high-yield facts that show up again and again on the exam: Beck and Virchow triads, pulsus paradoxus, ventricular fibrillation, secondary hypertension, aortic aneurysm repair, endocarditis, Turner syndrome, limb ischemia and early MI signs. Each question includes the correct answer.

Written by Dr. Ray Makar, MD, author of the Repeated USMLE Questions eBook series.

Prefer video? Watch daily USMLE case questions on MedFocus by Dr. Ray on YouTube.

How to use this page: read the question, pick your answer, then tap Show Answer and Explanation.

Questions

Question 1. Which of the following are the characteristics of Beck’s triad?

A- Fever, pericarditis and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B- Hypotension, distant heart sounds and jugular vein distention (JVD)
C- Stasis, hypercoagulability and endothelial damage

B- Hypotension, distant heart sounds and jugular vein distention (JVD)- Beck triad is the classic sign of cardiac tamponade.
The correct answer is B

 

Question 2. Which of the following are the characteristics of Dressler’s syndrome?

A- Fever, pericarditis and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B- Hypotension, distant heart sounds and jugular vein distention (JVD)
C- Stasis, hypercoagulability and endothelial damage

A- Fever, pericarditis and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)- Dressler syndrome is an autoimmune pericarditis that appears weeks after a myocardial infarction or heart surgery.
The correct answer is A

 

Question 3. Which of the following are the characteristics of Virchow’s triad?

A- Fever, pericarditis and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
B- Hypotension, distant heart sounds and jugular vein distention (JVD)
C- Stasis, hypercoagulability and endothelial damage

C- Stasis, hypercoagulability and endothelial damage
The correct answer is C

 

Question 4. Which of these conditions is known as pulsus paradoxus?

A- A difference of 10/min between the right and left radial pulse
B- A difference of 10/min between radial and femoral pulse
C- A difference in blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg between both arms
D- A fall of systolic blood pressure of more than 10 mmHg during inspiration

D- A fall of systolic blood pressure for more than 10 mmHg during inspiration- This phenomenon is often associated with pericardial tamponade, severe asthma, or obstructive sleep apnea.
The correct answer is D

 

Question 5. Which of the following is the proper treatment of ventricular fibrillation?

A- Digoxin and verapamil
B- Immediate cardioversion
C- Morphine and nitroglycerin
D- Metoprolol and heparin

B- Immediate cardioversion- Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic and ineffective ventricular contractions, leading to a lack of blood flow and potentially sudden cardiac arrest. Immediate electrical cardioversion is necessary to restore a normal heart rhythm. Other options are not appropriate treatments for ventricular fibrillation.
The correct answer is B

 

Question 6. What is the most common cause of hypertension in young women?

A- Atherosclerosis
B- Cardiomyopathy
C- Oral contraceptive pills
D- Rheumatic heart disease

C- Oral contraceptive pills- Oral contraceptives, particularly those containing estrogen, can lead to elevated blood pressure in some women. This risk is higher in women who are older, overweight, smokers, or have other risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with hypertension in young women.
The correct answer is C

 

Question 7. Which of the following is the indication for surgical repair of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?

A- Larger than 3.5 cm
B- Larger than 5.5 cm
C- Located under the origin of renal arteries
D- Right after being diagnosed

B- Larger than 5.5 cm
The correct answer is B

 

Question 8. Which one of the following valve abnormalities is related to intravenous drug abuse?

A- Aortic stenosis
B- Aortic regurgitation
C- Mitral stenosis
D- Tricuspid regurgitation

D- Tricuspid regurgitation
The correct answer is D

 

Question 9. What is the congenital heart disease most likely associated with Turner’s syndrome?

A- Atrial Septal defect
B- Coarctation of the aorta
C- Transposition of the great vessels
D- Ventricular septal defect

B- Coarctation of the aorta
The correct answer is B

 

Question 10. What are the classic “5 Ps” of acute limb ischemia?

A- Pain, pallor, paralysis, polycythemia, proteinuria
B- Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis
C- Pain, pallor, paresthesia, proteinuria, poikilothermia
D- Pain, pallor, proteinuria, paresthesia, paralysis

B- Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis- These are the classic signs of acute arterial occlusion of a limb. Poikilothermia (a cold limb) is often added as the sixth P. Paresthesia and paralysis are late, limb-threatening signs.
The correct answer is B

 

Question 11. Which of the following is the earliest EKG sign of myocardial infarction?

A- Inverted T-wave
B- Large peaked T-wave
C- Pathological Q-wave
D- S-T elevation

B- Large peaked T-wave- The earliest EKG change in acute myocardial infarction is the appearance of hyperacute (large, peaked) T-waves. ST elevation occurs shortly after. T-wave inversion and pathological Q-waves appear later as the infarction evolves.
The correct answer is B

 

High-yield points from this set

  • Beck triad (tamponade): hypotension, muffled heart sounds, distended neck veins.
  • Virchow triad: stasis, hypercoagulability, endothelial injury.
  • Ventricular fibrillation: immediate defibrillation.
  • Repair an abdominal aortic aneurysm at 5.5 cm or more.
  • Dressler syndrome: fever and pericarditis weeks after an MI.

Keep practicing

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