Q- A 28-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals tenderness in the right lower quadrant. Laboratory studies show an elevated white blood cell count. An ultrasound is performed and reveals an inflamed appendix.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment plan for this patient?
A- Intravenous ceftriaxone and metronidazole
B- Intravenous fluids and bowel rest
C- Laparoscopic appendectomy
D- Observation with serial abdominal exams
E- Oral ciprofloxacin and metronidazole
Q- A 45-year-old male with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic for a routine follow-up. He reports increased thirst and urination over the past few weeks. His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, and his BMI is 30 kg/m². Laboratory studies reveal a fasting blood glucose of 200 mg/dL and an HbA1c of 8.5%.
Which of the following medications is the most appropriate initial choice for managing this patient’s hyperglycemia?
B- Insulin glargine
Q- A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset severe chest pain radiating to her left arm. She appears diaphoretic and is hypotensive. Electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?