A 75-year-old man presents to his physician for a routine examination. He has a history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia and osteoarthritis. He takes atenolol, simvastatin and ibuprofen as needed. His pulse is 76/min and irregular. Blood pressure is 130/74. Physical examination and imaging studies are normal except for asymptomatic atrial fibrillation.
What is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A- Assurance and follow up in 3 months
B- Start aspirin
C- Start heparin
D- Start warfarin
E- Start low molecular weight heparin and warfarin
According to the most recent studies, warfarin 5 mg/day is the drug of choice for asymptomatic atrial fibrillation. Aspirin alone can be used as prophylactic if there is no AFib. Initial therapy with heparin is unnecessary because it has the same effect as warfarin alone.
The correct answer is D
18 thoughts on “Medical Question of the Day- 38”
A great question Dr Kavz. Shin necrosis is a hypothetical outcome but not seen clinically. Anyways, this option of bridging warfarin with heparin early in the treatment is not one of the choices so, I think in this case the best answer is to start warfarin. Thank you for this good question.
Sir, If we start warfarin without starting heparin first don’t they have the risk of skin necrosis
Thank you Dr Jannat
Thank you Dr Kavz
Thank you Dr Pokhrel
Thank you Dr Gupta
Thank you Dr Debbie
Thank you Dr Touseef
thank you Dr Lis
Thank you Dr Jamshaid.
Given his CHADS2Vasc score of 3, he’s a candidate for anticoagulation and would start warfarin (D)
B. Start aspirin
B. start aspirin