A 24-year-old man presents to the clinic with a complaint of grey-colored penile discharge and burning micturition for 2 days. His medical, surgical and family histories are unremarkable. Examination reveals a purulent discharge that can be seen by squeezing his penis. Penile swab shows Gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils.
What is the most appropriate treatment?
A – Oral doxycycline
B – IV ceftriaxone
C – IV ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline
D – IV penicillin
E – IM ampicillin
This patient has gonorrhea. Oral doxycycline is the treatment of choice for chlamydia and IV ceftriaxone is the treatment of choice for gonorrhea. Since most cases of gonorrhea are associated with chlamydia, then, the most appropriate treatment is IV ceftriaxone and oral doxycycline. Penicillin and its derivatives are not used any more due to their increased resistance.
The correct answer is C