A 2-year-old girl is presented with rectal bleeding. Her mom noticed blood in her BM yesterday and was worried about it and she decided to go to your clinic to examine her daughter. There is mild pain, not related to meals. No nausea or vomiting. The girl is healthy and her routine physical examination 2 months ago was normal. You perform a biopsy and the histopathology of the affected part shows mixed gastric and intestinal tissues.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A- Intussusception
B- Meckel’s diverticulum
C- Volvulus
D- Appendicitis
E- Diverticulitis
Answer:
This is most likely a Meckel’s diverticulum characterized by mixed tissues. In 90% of cases, Meckel’s diverticulum is made of intestinal tissue only and in this case, there is usually no symptoms. Symptoms and signs start if there is extra tissue present in the diverticulum. Clinical picture varies from mild such as pain, nausea to severe as intestinal obstruction, bleeding and inflammation of the intestines.
The correct answer is B
Thank you for helping me study on the go!
This is not an option Dr Elbishlawy
Atrophic vaginitis
D
This is a typical case of atrophic vaginitis. Treatment is estrogen cream before intercourse. A great question. Thank you Muhammad.
A 68yo woman presents with post-coital bleeding following her first episode of sexual intercourse in 10yrs. What is the single most likely cause that has led to post-coital bleeding?
a. Endometrial cancer
b. Atrophic vaginitis
c. Endometrial polyp
d. Cervical cancer
e. Cervical ectropion
This is highly educative,keep it up