Repeated USMLE Questions Step 2 CK- Review- 56

Q- A 26-year-old woman at 34 weeks’ gestation presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and right upper quadrant pain. Blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg. Labs show platelets 85,000/mm³ and elevated AST/ALT. Fetal monitoring is reassuring.

What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A- Administer IV labetalol and observe

B- Administer magnesium sulfate and proceed to delivery

C- Begin oral methyldopa and outpatient follow-up

D- Delay delivery until 37 weeks

B- Administer magnesium sulfate and proceed to delivery- This is a case of severe preeclampsia with HELLP syndrome. At ≥34 weeks, the correct management is magnesium sulfate (seizure prophylaxis) and delivery, regardless of fetal status.

 

Q- A 68-year-old man with advanced COPD is hospitalized for pneumonia and develops respiratory failure. He previously completed an advance directive stating he does not want intubation. His family demands “everything be done.”

What is the most appropriate next step?

A- Follow the family’s wishes

B- Intubate temporarily and reassess later

C- Honor the patient’s advance directive

D- Request a court order

C- Honor the patient’s advance directive- A competent patient’s prior expressed wishes take precedence over family requests. Physicians must respect advance directives.

 

Q- A 57-year-old man undergoes colon resection. On postoperative day 3, he develops fever, tachycardia, and abdominal pain. Abdomen is distended and tender. CT scan shows free air and fluid collection.

What is the most appropriate next step?

A- Broad-spectrum antibiotics only

B- Percutaneous drainage

C- Return to the operating room

D- Supportive care and observation

C- Return to the operating room- This suggests anastomotic leak with peritonitis. Hemodynamic instability and free air require urgent surgical exploration, not conservative management.

 

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Dr Ray Makar

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