A 90-year-old man is hospitalized from falling and breaking his hip. He has been already in the hospital for 6 days when he developed a burning sensation upon urinating. An analysis of his urine shows plenty of gram positive cocci and leukocytosis. The attendant physician treats him with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. However, the fever still persists. After 2 more days, the patient develops a diastolic murmur radiating to the axilla and a low-grade fever is still persisting.
Out of the following, which would be the first line treatment for the cause of the possible infection?
A- Ampicillin
B- Gentamicin
C- Piperacillin
D- Vancomycin
Answer
Enterococcus is one of the most common causes of nosocomial urinary tract infection, along with subacute endocarditis. Ampicillin is known to be the standard prescribed medication for treating enterococcus infections.
The correct answer is A
Elan is the only one who answered it correctly. A copy of the book has been sent to Elan.
Medical Question of the Day- 13
Ampicillin
It is diastolic and the reason is acute endocarditis.
Reading this question, I am curious to know if the murmur could be Systolic instead of diastolic?
Thank you Chiemelia
Thank you Elan
Thank you Asadullah
Vancomycin
Ampicillin
Vancomycin
Thank you Maham
Thank you Rizwan
Thank you Peace
Vanco
Staph infection vancomycin
Piperacillin
Thank you Silverio
Vancomycin, Staph. Aureus