A 90-year-old man is hospitalized from falling and breaking his hip. He has been already in the hospital for 6 days when he developed a burning sensation upon urinating. An analysis of his urine shows plenty of gram positive cocci and leukocytosis. The attendant physician treats him with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. However, the fever still persists. After 2 more days, the patient develops a diastolic murmur radiating to the axilla and a low-grade fever is still persisting.
Out of the following, which would be the first line treatment for the cause of the possible infection?
Enterococcus is one of the most common causes of nosocomial urinary tract infection, along with subacute endocarditis. Ampicillin is known to be the standard prescribed medication for treating enterococcus infections.
The correct answer is A
Elan is the only one who answered it correctly. A copy of the book has been sent to Elan.
Medical Question of the Day- 13
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It is diastolic and the reason is acute endocarditis.
Reading this question, I am curious to know if the murmur could be Systolic instead of diastolic?
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Staph infection vancomycin
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Vancomycin, Staph. Aureus