Repeated USMLE Questions Step 2 CK- Review- 62

Q- A 68-year-old man presents with fever, productive cough, and confusion. Blood pressure is 82/50 mmHg despite receiving 2 liters of IV fluids.

What is the next best step in management?

A- Administer intravenous norepinephrine

B- Begin oral antibiotics

C- Obtain chest CT scan

D- Start furosemide

A- Administer intravenous norepinephrine- This patient has septic shock with persistent hypotension despite fluid resuscitation. Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor.

 

Q- A 73-year-old man presents with urinary retention after undergoing surgery. Bladder scan shows 700 mL of urine.

What is the most appropriate immediate management?

A- Foley catheter placement

B- Oral tamsulosin

C- Pelvic ultrasound

D- Suprapubic surgery

A- Foley catheter placement- Acute urinary retention requires immediate bladder decompression with a Foley catheter before further evaluation.

 

Q- A 24-year-old woman presents with acute unilateral lower abdominal pain and nausea. Ultrasound shows an enlarged ovary with decreased blood flow.

What is the next best step in management?

A- Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics

B- Emergency laparoscopy

C- Observe and repeat ultrasound in 24 hours

D- Start oral contraceptives

B- Emergency laparoscopy- Ovarian torsion is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention to preserve ovarian viability.

 

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Dr Ray Makar

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